Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 22.06.2025 15:11

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
A common herb shows promise for boosting brain health and fighting Alzheimer’s - PsyPost
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Blue Origin boss: Government should forget launch and focus on “exotic” missions - Ars Technica
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.